TOLFA Segment 6, Question 2

To make a reluctant aggressor compensate his victim needs the use of force. Why does not the use of force in a true justice system itself constitute aggression? Unless the force used is strictly limited to what is needed for that purpose, it does - and should be subject to compensation
The right to defend oneself, using force, follows directly from the axiom of self-ownership. A forceful justice system is merely a use or extension of that right.
It's "tit for tat" - someone harms a victim, he'll get what's coming to him.
"Aggression" implies initiated force, and a system set up to right wrongs is reacting, not initiating.

Don't hurry away; even when you've got the right answer, try clicking on the others to see why they are wrong! Then when you have correctly answered this make notes in your student notebook, then go to Question 3.

Segment 6 Page